BUS6600: Survey of Business Concepts

M8 - Quiz
Started: Mar 9 at 12:20pm

Question 1                           4 / 4 pts
The first step you would take to get control of your personal finances is to

•   prepare a budget. 
•   keep track of all your expenses. 
•   start a savings program. 
•   take inventory of your assets. 

 
Question 2                           4 / 4 pts
For a young person, one of the worst places to invest money for the long-term is in

•   a home. 
•   a duplex. 
•   a bank savings account. 
•   the stock market. 

 
Question 3                           4 / 4 pts
Investments in IRA accounts

•   are matched by the employer. 
•   are taxed at the lowest individual tax rate regardless of the actual tax bracket of the investor. 
•   can be in stocks, bonds, mutual funds, or even precious metals. 
•   are limited to money market funds and government bonds. 

 
Question 4                           4 / 4 pts
A comparison of variable life insurance to a standard whole life plan would reveal that

•   variable life offers only pure insurance but does so at a very low cost, while a standard whole life plan costs more but offers both insurance and a savings plan. 
•   they are essentially identical. 
•   variable life is only available to people who want at least $1 million in coverage—and are willing to pay for it. 
•   both a standard whole life and variable life insurance offer both life insurance and savings, but variable life invests the savings more aggressively than whole life. 

Question 5                           4 / 4 pts
Throughout history an investment in __________ has yielded an excellent return, regardless of the state of the economy or political changes.

•   antiques 
•   savings accounts 
•   a good education 
•   government bonds 

 
Question 6                           4 / 4 pts
According to contrarians, the big decline in the stock market during the Great Recession was

•   a great opportunity to invest in stocks. 
•   proof that the future of capitalism should rely more on small, unincorporated businesses rather than big corporations. 
•   a sign that more government regulation was needed to prevent big losses. 
•   proof that the stock market was not as sound an investment as most people thought. 

 
Question 7                           4 / 4 pts
One disadvantage of term life insurance is that

•   it is generally not available to young people. 
•   when renewed it usually is at a higher premium. 
•   it is pure insurance protection for a given time period. 
•   the risk of lost income from the death of the insured is shifted to the insurance company. 

 
Question 8                           4 / 4 pts
A contract that calls for regular payments to an individual for life or for a fixed period of time is called a(n)

•   level premium agreement. 
•   fixed dividend plan. 
•   annuity. 
•   mutual fund. 

 
Question 9                           4 / 4 pts
Mortgage interest payments and property taxes are

•   both likely to decline the longer you own the home. 
•   expenses that make home ownership less attractive than renting. 
•   tax deductible for homeowners. 
•   both likely to increase each year at a faster rate than your income. 

Question 10                           4 / 4 pts
A homeowner's insurance policy that includes a provision for __________ would provide the homeowner with enough cash to replace the items lost with new items.

•   cash in lieu of coverage 
•   full collateral damage protection 
•   guaranteed replacement cost 
•   actual book value protection 

 
Question 11                           4 / 4 pts
One disadvantage of having credit cards for personal use is that

•   they offer no protection if they are stolen. 
•   many companies have a policy that prevents employees from having both personal credit cards and credit cards for business use. 
•   they are less convenient than other forms of credit. 
•   they can make it easy to pile up a large amount of debt quickly. 

 
Question 12                           4 / 4 pts
For workers who qualify, the earnings from income invested in a traditional IRA are

•   taxed at the time they are earned, but at the lowest individual rate. 
•   never taxed. 
•   taxed both at the time the money is earned and at the time the earnings are withdrawn. 
•   not taxed until the funds are withdrawn. 

 
Question 13                           4 / 4 pts
Which organization provides an assessment of the relative level of risk of a particular firm's bond issue?

•   Standard & Poor's
•   E*trade 
•   Wall Street Journal 
•   Securities and Exchange Commission 

 
Question 14                           4 / 4 pts
Online trading services target those investors who

•   trade the securities of foreign firms. 
•   are interested in purchasing government bonds. 
•   are willing to do their own research. 
•   require the research and advice of a licensed stockbroker. 

Question 15                          4 / 4 pts
Which of these offers low risk, guaranteed income, and the backing by the full faith and credit of the federal government?

•   common stock in the U.S. postal service 
•   U.S. government bonds 
•   municipal bonds 
•   U.S. government preferred stocks 

 
Question 16                           4 / 4 pts
Corporations issuing __________ bonds pledge a tangible asset as collateral to reduce the risk incurred by a bondholder.

•   replacement 
•   secured 
•   escrow 
•   endorsement 

 
Question 17                           4 / 4 pts
Each share of common stock provides the investor with a __________ right that offers the investor the first right to purchase any new shares of common stock the firm decides to issue. This allows common stockholders to maintain a proportional share of ownership in the company.

•   preemptive 
•   participating 
•   convertible 
•   cumulative 

Question 18                           4 / 4 pts
A mutual fund company buys securities from corporations and governments and packages them together into a mutual fund. It then

•   deposits the mutual fund into a pension fund for institutional investors. 
•   charges investors a fee to find out how these investments fared, so that investors can decide for themselves as to whether they want to own the investments. 
•   gives investors the option to bid on a share of this investment. 
•   sells shares of this packaged investment to interested investors. 

 
Question 19                          4 / 4 pts
Buying stock on margin allows an investor to borrow funds from the brokerage company as part of the transaction. This __________ the potential return to the investor and __________ the risk.

•   decreases; increases 
•   increases; decreases 
•   decreases; decreases 
•   increases; increases 

 
Question 20                           4 / 4 pts
Issuing __________ increases a firm's debt and may adversely affect the financial community's perception of the firm.

•   common stock 
•   retained earnings 
•   preferred stock 
•   bonds 

 
Question 21                           4 / 4 pts
An organization whose members can buy and sell securities for companies and investors is known as a

•   stock exchange. 
•   transfer medium. 
•   public securities dealer. 
•   securities facilitator. 

 
Question 22                           4 / 4 pts
Firms establish a __________ so that sufficient funds are available to repay bondholders on the maturity date.
  sinking fund 
  retirement account 
  encumbered account 
  mutual fund 
 
Question 23                           4 / 4 pts
Of the five criteria for selecting an investment option, which one measures how quickly an investor has access to his/her invested funds, if they are needed?

•   liquidity 
•   yield 
•   tax consequences 
•   risk 

Question 24                           4 / 4 pts
Using information not available to the public to unfairly benefit in the stock market represents

•   an unethical, but a legal activity. 
•   insider trading. 
•   security fraud. 
•   blue-sky violations. 

 
Question 25                           4 / 4 pts
Diversification means

•   buying investments on margin. 
•   being knowledgeable about the various types of investment opportunities. 
•   allocating your investment funds to several types of investments. 
•   allocating all your investment funds into one type of investment. 

BUS6600: Survey of Business Concepts

M7 - Quiz
Started: Mar 1 at 11:40am

Question 1                                       4 / 4 pts
The value of resources the firm owns, minus the amount of money the firm owes to others equals

•   liquidity. 
•   liabilities. 
•   owners' equity.
•   leverage. 

 
Question 2                                       4 / 4 pts
__________ involves the review and evaluation of the records that are used to prepare the organization's financial statements.

•   Certified bookkeeping 
•   Financial accounting 
•   Managerial accounting 
•   Auditing 

 
Question 3                                       4 / 4 pts
The main reason an accountant would conduct a trial balance is to

•   ensure the audit was done correctly. 
•   verify the validity of last year's balance sheet before beginning the next accounting cycle.
•   determine whether account figures in the ledger are correct and balanced. 
•   obtain an estimate of the amount of taxes the firm owes. 

Question 4                                       4 / 4 pts
When creating the income statement, which of the following statements is accurate?

•   Revenues, minus Depreciation Expense = Gross Profit. 
•   Revenues, minus Cost of Goods Sold = Gross Profit. 
•   Revenues, minus General Operating Expenses = Gross Profit. 
•   Revenues, minus Tax Expense = Gross Profit. 

 
Question 5                                       4 / 4 pts
__________ is the systematic write-off of the value of a tangible asset over its useful life.

•   Gross margin allocation 
•   Depreciation 
•   Capital budgeting 
•   Liquidation 

 
Question 6                                       4 / 4 pts
To effectively run a business, it is necessary to

•   hire a full-time accountant. 
•   understand and use accounting information. 
•   use a public accounting firm. 
•   make certain that you do not spend too much time on your accounting system. 

 
Question 7                                       4 / 4 pts
__________ is the monetary value that is received for goods sold, services rendered, and money received from other sources.

•   Net income 
•   Gross margin 
•   Cost of goods sold 
•   Revenue 

 
Question 8                                       4 / 4 pts
An important difference between accounting and other business functions, such as marketing and management, is that
  accounting offers us insight into whether the business is financially sound. 
  accounting involves mainly clerical activities and thus requires very little analysis. 
  accounting deals exclusively with numbers. 
  accounting functions must be performed by an outsider, rather than by an employee of the business, in order to avoid conflicts of interest. 
 
Question 9                                       4 / 4 pts
Generally, a high __________ ratio could lead investors and creditors to view the company as being very risky.

•   diluted earnings per share 
•   inventory turnover 
•   debt to owners' equity
•   acid-test 

Question 10                                       4 / 4 pts
Retailers attempt to sell older merchandise before more recently acquired merchandise is sold. The assumptions made by the __________ method of inventory valuation are most consistent with this approach.

•   average costing 
•   LIFO (last-in, first-out) 
•   accelerated costing 
•   FIFO (first-in, first-out) 

Question 11                                       4 / 4 pts
Which financial statement reports the company's revenues and selling costs over a period of time?

•   income statement 
•   trial balance 
•   statement of cash flows 
•   balance sheet 

 
Question 12                                       4 / 4 pts
A __________ is a specialized accounting book, where transactions are categorized according to type. For example, all utility transactions are recorded in the same category.

•   journal 
•   ledger 
•   balance sheet 
•   trial balance 

 
Question 13                                       4 / 4 pts
Use the fundamental accounting equation to solve the following: Assets minus Liabilities equals

•   Cash Reserves. 
•   Gross Margin. 
•   Owners' Equity.
•   Net Income. 

Question 14                                       4 / 4 pts
Which organization would be most likely to acquire short-term funding by issuing commercial paper?

•   a small business that is unable to qualify for loans from commercial banks 
•   a company that prefers equity financing to obtain short-term funds 
•   a well-known, financially stable corporation 
•   a firm with a significant percentage of current assets held as accounts receivable 

Question 15                                       4 / 4 pts
A __________ forecast predicts the revenues, costs, and expenses a firm will incur for a period of one year or less.

•   short-term 
•   tactical 
•   near-horizon 
•   capital expenditures 

 
Question 16                                       4 / 4 pts
A __________ forecast predicts the future cash inflows and outflows in future periods.

•   money based 
•   long-term 
•   cash flow 
•   short-term 

 
Question 17                                       4 / 4 pts
A loan backed by collateral represents a(n)

•   pledging factor. 
•   secured loan. 
•   debenture bond. 
•   bond trust. 

 
Question 18                                       4 / 4 pts
Through equity financing, stockholders become __________ of the firm.

•   suppliers 
•   creditors 
•   owners 
•   employees 

 
Question 19                                       4 / 4 pts
What is a primary area of concern for financial managers?

•   poor advertising messages 
•   inadequate market control 
•   inability to recruit qualified workers 
•   undercapitalization 

 
Question 20                                       4 / 4 pts
Typically, only highly regarded customers with financial stability receive

•   trade credit. 
•   bank premiums. 
•   secured loans. 
•   unsecured loans. 

 
Question 21                                       4 / 4 pts
In order to assist in revenue realization, a(n) __________ allocates resources throughout the firm.

•   budget 
•   forecast 
•   income statement 
•   balance sheet 

 
Question 22                                       4 / 4 pts
The budget that estimates a firm's projected cash inflows and outflows, as well as cash shortages or surpluses during a given time period, is called the __________ budget.
  operating 
  capital 
  monetary 
  cash 
 
Question 23                                       4 / 4 pts
The effective management of accounts receivable requires financial managers to

•   provide prompt cash payments to suppliers. 
•   review the credit history of new customers. 
•   allow customers more time in paying their past due accounts. 
•   refuse bank-issued credit cards. 

Question 24                                       4 / 4 pts
One of the challenges of effective financial management is

•   ensuring the satisfaction of each of the stakeholder groups. 
•   providing the financial data in a timely manner for management consultants to improve decision making. 
•   working within the strict regulations of the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB). 
•   having sufficient cash on hand without compromising the firm's investment potential.

 
Question 25                                       4 / 4 pts
To reduce the time and expense of collecting their accounts receivable, some firms

•   accept bank credit cards. 
•   extend credit to new customers. 
•   offer extended payment plans to existing customers. 
•   adopt a just-in-time inventory policy. 

CYB 410 Project Three Guidelines and Rubric

Crafting and Evaluating Risk-Based Recommendations

Overview

How do you make a good risk-informed decision? In this project, you will look at how to craft and evaluate risk-based recommendations. You will examine the processes and methods you can use to make risk-based recommendations, their impact, and the quality of the decisions you’ve made.

Throughout this course and the overall program, you have encountered many real-world breaches. Think about the breaches you have explored and the role that risk management and risk planning played in the outcomes. It is important to review previous breaches across different industries and find commonalities (similar software usage, for example) to make good decisions when evaluating or reevaluating your own organization’s risks. The OPM, Sony, and Target breaches are all useful examples that can help you learn better ways to manage risk and vulnerabilities.

When making risk-informed recommendations, you should look to resources in the form of standards, guidelines, and best practices to help make and assess your decisions. Some resources you might consider are the NIST, the CIS Controls, or the Fundamental Security Design Principles. There are other tools that also help to classify and quantify risk, like the risk register or business impact analysis. When you assess the quality of your decision, also consider how it will affect everyone in the organization.

The project will be submitted in Module Seven.

In this assignment, you will demonstrate your mastery of the following competency:

• Apply decision-quality principles in making risk-informed recommendations

Prompt

You must address the critical elements listed below. The codes shown in brackets indicate the competency to which each critical element is aligned.

1. Risk-Informed Recommendations
   1. Discuss how you can use tools to make risk-informed recommendations. Justify your response with a relevant example.
   2. Discuss how you can use resources to make risk-informed recommendations. Justify your response with a relevant example.
   3. Consider how you can identify and minimize your own bias when making risk-informed recommendations.
   4. Explain how you can use systems thinking to consider the impact of your decision on people, processes, and technology.
   5. Explain what evidence you would use to evaluate whether you made a good decision.

CYB 410 Project Two Guidelines and Rubric

Data Life Cycle Management

Overview

How does an organization determine the value of its data? The data life cycle covers all aspects of data within an organization—from creation to destruction. You have explored the data life cycle of Green Thumb Nursery in your milestones by developing a data inventory, classifying the data, and customizing policies for the secure storage and destruction of data. For your project, you will respond to new business developments from your customer and reflect on the value that creating a data life cycle has for any organization.

The project incorporates two milestones, which will be submitted in Modules Three and Five. The project will be submitted in Module Seven.

In this assignment, you will demonstrate your mastery of the following competency:

• Develop a data life cycle plan for the protection of organizational data

Scenario

You have been consulting with Green Thumb to create its data life cycle plan and have created a first draft. After you created this draft, Green Thumb has provided you with information that would affect the data life cycle plan.

The business owner explains that Green Thumb Nursery has not had vibrant plants for several months and has been trying a variety of nutrients on existing plants. The results are not up to Green Thumb standards. Green Thumb Nursery is looking to invest in creating its own custom fertilizer to be used for its own nursery and also for marketing to customers. Green Thumb Nursery is hoping to bring a competitive edge to the landscaping and nursery business and improve the quality of its existing plants and shrubs. The long-term plan is to bring this to market in two years. As part of the strategic plan, you will need to change the data life cycle plan you have already started.

Prompt

You must address the critical elements listed below. The codes shown in brackets indicate the competency to which each critical element is aligned.

1. Green Thumb Nursery Data Life Cycle Plan Updates—Using the Project Two Milestone One template for the data life cycle plan, add an additional Microsoft Windows Server 2022 with SQL 2022 to the System Resource/Component column for the new research and development (R&D) work and complete the following:
   1. Logically identify the data from the new resource in the Data Inventory column.
   2. Apply the appropriate classification to the new data you identified in the Data Classification column.
   3. Justify your rationale for applying the classification in the Data Classification Justification column.
2. Data Life Cycle Management Debrief—Using your experience with Green Thumb, think about how you can apply what you have learned more holistically and answer the following:
   1. Explain the importance of a data life cycle plan for an organization.
   2. Explain the impact that not creating a data life cycle plan has on an organization.
   3. Justify the value of maintaining this plan.

BUS6600: Survey of Business Concepts

M6 - Quiz
Started: Feb 22 at 5:36am

 
Question 1                                    4 pts
Companies who send salespeople to customers' homes or places of work are making use of __________ selling.

• direct
• multilevel
• downline
• nonprice

 
Question 2                                    4 pts
__________ shipping uses several different modes of transportation to complete a single long-distance movement of freight.

• LAST (land-air-sea transport)
• Multilevel
• Intermodal
• Flexmode

 
Question 3                                    4 pts
About __________ of the costs of things we buy are marketing costs that go to pay for distribution costs of intermediaries.

• 30 percent
• 25 percent
• 75 percent
• 90 percent

 
Question 4                                    4 pts
Which firm would be most likely to use a selective distribution strategy for its products?

• maker of snack foods such as potato chips and pretzels
• maker of kitchen appliances
• newspaper publisher
• luxury RV manufacturer

 
Question 5                                    4 pts
QuickStop sells a variety of grab-and-go snack items to small retail stores. The fact that it sells only to other firms and not to consumers indicates that QuickStop engages only in

• pure retailing.
• mass marketing.
• wholesale sales.
• online retailing.

 
Question 6                                    4 pts
According to the box “Spotlight on Small Business,” __________ has/have made it easier for doctors and patients to connect outside of the traditional doctor’s office.

• demographics
• kiosks
• technology
• logistics

 
Question 7                                    4 pts
Compared to railroads and trucks, the biggest advantage offered by air transport is that it is

• able to reach more destinations.
• lower in cost.
• faster.
• more dependable.

 
Question 8                                    4 pts
A(n) __________ distribution strategy uses only one retail outlet in a given geographic area.

• exclusive
• solitary
• restrictive
• selective

 
Question 9                                    4 pts
Producers of snack foods (such as candy bars or potato chips) are most likely to use a(n) __________ distribution strategy for their products.

• intensive
• selective
• exclusive
• restrictive

 
Question 10                                    4 pts
Marketing intermediaries that solicit orders from retailers or other wholesalers and have the products delivered directly from the producer to the buyer are known as

• channel captains.
• truck jobbers.
• drop shippers.
• merchandise agents.

 
Question 11                                    4 pts
When firms manage the return of goods from consumers either because they are defective or for recycling purposes, they are involved in

• inbound logistics.
• factory processes.
• retail intermediaries.
• reverse logistics.

 
Question 12                                    4 pts
One way a store selling home medical equipment might add __________ utility is to provide convenient delivery and setup to customers.

• form
• conditional
• time
• possession

 
Question 13                                    4 pts
Which form of advertising offers the greatest potential for meaningful interaction between buyers and sellers?

• online advertising
• radio
• product placement
• infomercials

 
Question 14                                    4 pts
__________ encourages people to tell other people about goods or services they have enjoyed.

• Personal selling
• Publicity
• A virtual trade show
• Word-of-mouth promotion

 
Question 15                                    4 pts
Which statement is the most accurate depiction of advertising?

• Advertising does not really provide information to consumers; it merely persuades consumers to buy advertised products.
• Consumers don't remember good advertisements.
• Word of mouth is the most effective form of advertising.
• Advertising helps pay for production costs of newspapers and magazines.

 
Question 16                                    4 pts
Which statement is the most accurate assessment of promotion?

• Successful promotion utilizes each element of the promotion mix independently, creating a well-diversified message.
• Studies indicate that effective promotion focuses on the pricing elements of the marketing mix.
• The Internet changes the focus of promotion from "working with" to "promoting to" customers.
• New promotional efforts create a more interactive approach, developing a dialogue between the firm and its customers.

 
Question 17                                    4 pts
Future promotional efforts will likely be

• similar to promotional efforts today.
• less interactive and more persuasive.
• custom-designed to reach smaller audiences.
• targeted at larger audiences.

 
Question 18                                    4 pts
A __________ is designed to allow B2B buyers to see products online 24/7 without having to leave their office.

• television infomercial
• direct mail promotion
• virtual trade show
• marketing portfolio

 
Question 19                                    4 pts
The effectiveness of direct mail advertising suffers from

• its inflexibility.
• its inability to target specific markets.
• the consumer perception that it is junk mail.
• the limited length of the message.

 
Question 20                                    4 pts
Two-way communication between businesses and customers becomes easier by using

• mobile marketing.
• social media.
• product placement.
• viral marketing.

 
Question 21                                    4 pts
Which characteristic helps explain the popularity of infomercials?

• ability to clearly demonstrate the product's benefits
• use of an inexperienced salesperson who is believable
• interactive nature of the presentation
• impact of favorable government testimonials on potential buyers

 
Question 22                                    4 pts
__________ refers to such tactics as paying people to say good things about a product online or setting up multilevel selling schemes that reward people for directing their friends to a company's website.

• Trade show advertising
• Viral marketing
• Direct mail
• Demographic analysis

 
Question 23                                    4 pts
A good public relations program recognizes that the

• firm must be independent of production and service activities.
• media are not to be trusted since they profit by selling bad news.
• firm must be willing to make changes in its policies and procedures.
• company must not admit fault.

 
Question 24                                    4 pts
Which statement about sales promotion is most accurate?

• Sales promotions are targeted both internally and externally.
• Sales promotion efforts are directed exclusively at nonprofit organizations.
• The only goal of sales promotion activities is to create consumer awareness.
• Dealers are inappropriate targets of sales promotion activities.

 
Question 25                                    4 pts
In evaluating the best advertising medium to reach a specific target market the clear choice is

• direct mail.
• network television.
• cable television.
• newspapers.

Risk Management Planning Debrief

Overview

Successful security risk management planning relies heavily on your proactive and adversarial mindsets. By thoroughly analyzing the threat landscape and anticipating risks that could impede normal business operations, you can set your organization up to make informed decisions during a crisis. You have explored creating a risk register and business impact analysis for a fictitious garden nursery. For your project, you will create a Risk Management Planning Debrief. Understanding the basics and best practices allows you to tailor solutions that will work best for your organization.

The project incorporates two stepping stones, which will be submitted in Module Two and Module Four. The project will be submitted in Module Six.

In this assignment, you will demonstrate your mastery of the following competency:

• Analyze threat landscape for its impact on the organizational environment

Prompt

You must address the critical elements listed below. The codes shown in brackets indicate the competency to which each critical element is aligned.

1. Risk Register
   1. Explain the importance of a risk register as a decision aid.
   2. Describe the relationship between a risk register and the threat landscape for an organization.
2. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
   1. Explain the importance of a BIA as a decision aid.
   2. Describe the relationship between the BIA and the survivability of an organization.
3. Risk Management Planning
   1. Evaluate the strategic value of collectively applying systems thinking, an adversarial mindset, and the tenets of confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) when security risk management planning.

Data Life Cycle Management Policies

Overview

What is the importance of policies in data life cycle management? In previous modules, you completed a data inventory and data classification for Green Thumb Nursery. Now you will address additional elements in the data life cycle for Green Thumb: data storage, data security, and data destruction. Addressing these elements of the data life cycle is important for all organizations regardless of size or complexity. Creating data storage, data security, and data destruction policies is a proactive step to limit exposure to potential risks to an organization. When writing policies, you should have two goals. First, create the right policy for an organization that is customized to its needs. Second, write a policy that is easy to understand and follow.

Scenario

You are part of a cybersecurity consulting firm that has been hired to help Green Thumb Nursery develop its risk management plan. The initial round of on-site, in-person interviews has already been conducted by your leadership team, and you are tasked with helping the team complete their data storage and security policies and their data destruction policies.

Prompt

To create new policies for Green Thumb Nursery, use the Project Two Milestone Two Templates for the data storage and security policy and for the data destruction policy. These two documents are linked in the What to Submit section below. Reference the Project Two Milestone One data inventory and data classification as needed.

You must address the critical elements listed below.

1. Data Storage and Security Policy
   1. Describe the purpose of the policy using precise and succinct language.
   2. Describe the people and the technology that are covered by the scope of this policy. Be specific.
   3. Create an effective data storage policy that addresses all elements in the policy section of the template.
   4. Create an effective data security policy that addresses all elements in the policy section of the template.
2. Data Destruction Policy
   1. Describe the purpose of the policy using precise and succinct language.
   2. Describe the people and the technology that are covered by the scope of this policy. Be specific.
   3. Create an effective data destruction policy that addresses all elements in the policy section of the template.

BUS6600: Survey of Business Concepts 

M5 - Quiz 

Score for this quiz: 100 out of 100 

Submitted Feb 15 at 12:58am

Question 1                                     4 pts
Which term involves the analysis of markets to identify opportunities and challenges?

• opportunity identification
• marketing research
• market prospecting
• market analysis

 
Question 2                                     4 pts
Firms adopting a relationship marketing strategy view technology and social media as a(n)

• promising technique to expand to a mass market.
• tool with limited value because many people are reluctant to place orders or send information electronically.
• threat to the effective and efficient implementation of their strategy.
• increased opportunity to personalize marketing campaigns to meet customer needs.

 
Question 3                                     4 pts
Exploring __________ data first helps marketers minimize marketing research costs.

• primary
• secondary
• personal interview
• focus group

 
Question 4                                     4 pts
Marketers define a __________ as any physical good, service, or idea that satisfies a want or need.

• product
• benefit
• concept
• value

 
Question 5                                    4 pts
The two major types of markets are the

• consumer market and the B2B market.
• B2B market and the C2C market.
• target market and the niche market.
• primary market and the secondary market.

 
Question 6                                     4 pts
One factor that influences the consumer decision-making process is __________, referring to the set of values, attitudes, and ways of doing things passed from one generation to another in a given society.

• cognitive dissonance
• culture
• group behavior
• the legal environment

 
Question 7                                     4 pts
Which statement about the distinction between consumer goods and B2B goods is the most accurate?

• Industrial goods are custom-made to the specifications of the buyer, while the all consumer goods are mass-produced.
• Consumer goods are typically more expensive than industrial goods.
• Industrial goods tend to have a useful life of several years and can be depreciated while consumer goods typically last less than a year.
• The same product can be classified as either a consumer good or an industrial good, depending upon its end use.

 
Question 8                                     4 pts
A firm that uses __________ segmentation divides a market into groups based on values, attitudes, or interests.

• benefit
• demographic
• normative
• psychographic

 
Question 9                                    4 pts
What characteristic is a part of the marketing concept?

• avoidance of risk
• limitless markets
• emphasis on efficient production
• a consumer orientation

 
Question 10                                     4 pts
Contacting customers after a sale to reassure them that they made the right decision is intended to offset

• relationship conflict.
• mass marketing.
• self-actualization.
• cognitive dissonance.

 
Question 11                                     4 pts
A firm that uses __________ segmentation divides a market into groups based on life stage, race, or profession.

• value
• benefit
• target
• demographic

 
Question 12                                     4 pts
Which statement about the B2B market is true?

• The size of the market is smaller than the consumer market.
• Industrial buyers tend to be more emotional in their purchasing decisions.
• Promotion efforts are focused mostly on advertising.
• Industrial buyers are usually large.

 Question 13                                     4 pts
A leading cause of new-product failure is

• insufficient competition.
• product promises that are not delivered.
• the automation of the product development process.
• excessive product differentiation.

 
Question 14                                     4 pts
What is a stage of the new-product development process?

• automation
• commercialization
• selective perception
• media screening

 
Question 15                                     4 pts
Which development is consistent with the introduction stage of the product life cycle?

• minimum use of advertising
• decreasing sales volume
• low profit levels or a potential loss
• large number of competitors

 
Question 16                                     4 pts
What term refers to a group of products offered by a firm that are physically similar or are intended for a similar market?

• total product offer
• product line
• product mix
• product matrix

 
Question 17                                     4 pts
Nonbranded products that sell below the price of national brands, have very basic packaging, and are backed with little or no advertising are called

• distributor brands.
• generic goods.
• house brands.
• universal goods.

 
Question 18                                     4 pts
As firms develop their marketing mix, it is important to remember that

• prices must be linked directly to the cost of production.
• firms are often restricted in creating pricing strategies by relevant government rules and guidelines.
• instincts and past history are the best guides in determining price.
• regardless of the strategy used, prices ultimately reflect the forces of supply and demand.

Question 19                                     4 pts 

__________ costs are those costs that change as the level of production changes.

• Variable
• Fixed
• Mixed
• Set

 
Question 20                                     4 pts
The strategy of first determining what the market is willing to pay, then subtracting a desired profit margin to determine a desired cost of production, is called

• skimming pricing.
• target costing.
• penetration pricing.
• cost-based pricing.

 
Question 21                                     4 pts
What is a benefit of a brand name for a seller?

• quality assurance
• additional prestige
• increased repeat purchases
• reduction in search time

 
Question 22                                     4 pts
What is a potential problem with a high-low pricing strategy?

• It places too much emphasis on nonprice competition.
• It confuses and frustrates customers.
• It is difficult to implement.
• It teaches customers to wait for sales, and therefore reduces profits.

 
Question 23                                     4 pts
When a brand becomes commonplace and identified with a category of goods rather than the unique product of a specific manufacturer, the brand may become a

• trademark.
• universal product code.
• product liability issue.
• generic name.

 
Question 24                                     4 pts
Which description pertains to the job performed by brand managers?

• It is likely to become less important in firms that utilize the Internet.
• It involves broad responsibilities for the marketing of a specific brand or product line.
• It is mainly concerned with the promotion of the entire product mix of their firm.
• It focuses more on the pricing and promotion of established goods than on the development of new products.

 
Question 25                                     4 pts
Which statement is the most accurate assessment of the role packaging plays in product offerings?

• The importance of packaging is greater now than ever.
• The importance of packaging has diminished as online retailing has grown.
• While packaging plays an important role in marketing goods, it is not relevant to the marketing of services.
• Effective packaging eliminates the potential of product liability suits.

BUS6600: M4 - Quiz 

Score for this quiz: 100 out of 100 

Submitted Feb 7 at 5:01am

Question 1                               4 pts
It is accurate to state that ethical dilemmas in business

• often force us to choose between equally unsatisfactory alternatives.
• always end up bringing out the best in us.
• force us to make poor choices.
• define us as being moral absolutists or moral situationalists.

 
Question 2                               4 pts
Considering the potential impact on others prior to making a decision is consistent with __________ behavior.

• legal
• self-motivated
• anti-social
• ethical

 
Question 3                               4 pts
The position a firm takes on issues that affect the corporation as well as society is known as its

• corporate policy.
• target posturing.
• political philanthropy.
• structural positioning.

 
Question 4                              4 pts
Which question will help individuals and organizations when deciding if their decisions are ethical?

• Is it balanced?
• Is there a desirable alternative?
• Can I do this without getting caught?
• Has it been done before?

 
Question 5                               4 pts
When managers disregard the company's ethical concerns, the likely result is

• a reduction in lawsuits.
• an improvement in overall manager morale.
• a reduction in employee turnover.
• a general mistrust between workers and management.

 
Question 6                               4 pts
The first and most basic step when facing an ethical dilemma is to ask

• "Is it balanced?"
• "Is it profitable?"
• "How will it make me feel about myself?"
• "Is it legal?"

 
Question 7                               4 pts
Organizational ethics begins with

• an understanding of the law.
• strong managers.
• the individual values of employees.
• traditional religious institutions.

 
Question 8                               4 pts
Determining what is involved for a firm to be socially responsible

• varies, and has several dimensions.
• is clear-cut and easy.
• varies from industry to industry due to different laws.
• helps government officials develop appropriate legislation.

 
Question 9                               4 pts
A payoff for socially conscious behavior is

• new and loyal customers.
• a large pool of investors.
• a large pool of talented employees.
• longevity due to a stable external environment.

 
Question 10                               4 pts
What is the most basic reason why a business should be managed ethically?

• Your employees demand it.
• There are strict global regulations require it.
• It's the right thing to do.
• It's the law in the United States.

 
Question 11                               4 pts
A(n) __________-based ethics code emphasizes the prevention of unlawful behavior by increasing control and penalizing wrongdoers.

• legal
• compliance
• corporate responsibility
• integrity

 
Question 12                               4 pts
When working with international firms, U.S. businesses

• expect socially responsible behavior from their business partners.
• try to avoid judging international business partners by U.S. standards.
• tend to ignore the ethics of their international partners.
• feel that their responsibility is limited to the United States.

 
Question 13                               4 pts
Early settlers of the New World relied heavily on barter because

• they found barter more convenient than the use of money.
• money had not yet evolved.
• they wanted to protest against British control of the banking system.
• strict laws limited the number of coins that could be brought into the colonies.

 
Question 14                               4 pts
__________ represent money set aside by corporations, nonprofit organizations, or unions to cover part of the retirement needs of their members.

• Term-life retirement funds
• Annuity accounts
• Individual retirement accounts
• Pension funds

 
Question 15                               4 pts
Which institution primarily finances economic development projects in less-developed countries?

• International Monetary Fund
• International Reserve Bank
• International Development Administration
• World Bank

 
Question 16                               4 pts
The Federal Reserve System consists of __________ Federal Reserve banks.

• 5
• 12
• 14
• 9

 
Question 17                               4 pts
For banks, check-processing activities

• are not trustworthy and reliable.
• are expensive and time consuming.
• are extremely efficient and have deterred customers from using other ways to access their funds.
• still represent the cheapest way to permit customers use of their funds.

 
Question 18                              4 pts
A __________ represents an unconditional agreement by a bank to pay a specified amount at a particular time.

• certified trade acceptance
• banker's acceptance
• guaranteed funds agreement
• letter of credit

 
Question 19                               4 pts
The __________ category of money supply includes money that is quickly and easily accessed.

• M-2
• e-cash
• M-3
• M-1

 
Question 20                               4 pts
When the value of the U.S. dollar increases relative to other currencies,

• the rate of inflation increases.
• U.S. goods become less expensive to foreign buyers.
• the size of the national debt decreases.
• foreign goods become less expensive to U.S. consumers.

 
Question 21                               4 pts
An increase in the rate of inflation would likely result from a(n)

• increase in the supply of money in circulation.
• rise in interest rates.
• rise in the unemployment rate.
• decrease in spending by the federal government.

 
Question 22                               4 pts
The Fed uses __________ to regulate the money supply.

• the political negotiation process
• the discount rate
• the deposit requirement
• stock market investments

 
Question 23                               4 pts
A time deposit that earns interest is a

• debit account.
• certificate of deposit.
• checking account.
• discount deposit.

 
Question 24                               4 pts
Under the Federal Reserve Act of 1913,

• membership in the Federal Reserve System was required of all banks that had deposits of more than $1 million.
• membership in the Federal Reserve System was made voluntary for all banks.
• federally chartered banks were required to join the Federal Reserve System.
• all banks were required to hold reserves equal to at least 50 percent of their deposits.

 
Question 25                               4 pts
Which institution helps to provide for the smooth flow of money between nations?

• International Exchange Center
• International Monetary Fund
• Foreign Exchange Bank
• World Bank

CYB 410 Project Two Milestone One Guidelines and Rubric

Data Inventory and Data Classification

Overview

It is important to understand the different kinds of data that an organization is collecting. As a cybersecurity analyst, you need to know the data. Know the criticality of the data you organize and analyze, and the impact on the organization in case of a breach or loss of data. As you develop the data life cycle plan, keep in mind that one of the goals is to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization’s data. Consider the following questions:

• Is some information highly confidential?
• Would your company be at risk if certain data were leaked?
• Would your customers be at risk?
• What if your data disappeared?

As a security analyst, you will use your adversarial mindset to view this task.

Part of data life cycle management and risk management is to classify the data. Classifying data can vary between organizations. Classification is based on the criticality of the information and the risks of possible attacks. For example, in the case of a data breach, a customer’s email address would be considered low risk. However, a customer’s credit card information or Social Security number would be high risk so it would have higher security protection. Data classification is simply a way of grouping the data based on its level of criticality. This classification allows for varying degrees of security protection for each group.

Scenario

You are part of a cybersecurity consulting firm that has been hired to help Green Thumb Nursery develop its risk management plan. The initial round of on-site, in-person interviews has already been conducted by your leadership team and you are tasked with helping the team complete the finalized documentation for the data life cycle plan. This plan includes performing a data inventory to identify data that is critical to the organization in order to implement a data classification standard.

Prompt

Using your expertise as a cybersecurity consultant, complete the Data Inventory and Data Classification tab in your Project Two Milestone One Template, which is linked in the What to Submit section below. One row of the template has been completed to provide you with an example. Begin by reviewing the Classification Matrix tab to learn about the categories used for data classifications. You must address the critical elements listed below.

1. Data Inventory: Using the components listed in the System Resource/Component column, complete the Data Inventory column.
   1. Identify the appropriate types of data found in each system resource/component.
2. Data Classification: Using the information in the Data Inventory column, complete the Data Classification column.
   1. Apply the appropriate classification to the data you identified in your data inventory.
3. Justification: Complete the Data Classification Justification column.
   1. Justify your rationale for applying each classification.

What to Submit

Submit the completed Project Two Milestone One Template for the data life cycle. Use a file name that includes the course code, the assignment title, and your name—for example, CYB_123_Assignment_Firstname_Lastname.xlsx.